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standard error for quantile

Hi Ted
<snip>
So if I understand correctly p*(1-p) is biggest when p=0.5 and decreases with smaller or bigger p. The var(X.p) then depends on ratio to parent distribution at this p probability. For lognorm distribution and 200 values the resulting var is
[1] 3.125e-08
[1] 6.648497e-08

so 0.1 var is slightly bigger than 0.5 var. For different distributions this can be reversed as Jim pointed out.

Did I manage to understand?

Thank you very much.
Regards
Petr