Skip to content
Prev 165575 / 398506 Next

Question about regression without an intercept

Dear Ajay,

The reason isn't mysterious: the fitted values from both models are linear
functions of x (without error), and hence are perfectly correlated with each
other and have the same correlation with anything else -- including y --
that x does. Try plotting fitted(m1) vs. fitted(m2).

Regards,
 John

------------------------------
John Fox, Professor
Department of Sociology
McMaster University
Hamilton, Ontario, Canada
web: socserv.mcmaster.ca/jfox
On
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
http://www.mayin.org/ajayshah
http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html