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Is there any difference between <- and =

I think Venables' and Ripley's convention makes good sense:

http://www.stat.auckland.ac.nz/mail/archive/r-downunder/2008-October/000300.html

So we not only are explicit about what we are assigning, but where we
are assigning it.

Cheers,

Simon.
On Thu, 2009-03-12 at 17:10 -0700, David M Smith wrote: