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logistic regression or not?

A possible caveat here.

Traditionally, logistic regression was performed on the
logit-transformed proportions, with the standard errors based on the
residuals for the resulting linear fit. This accommodates overdispersion
naturally, but without telling you that you have any.

glm with a binomial family does not allow for overdispoersion unless
you use the quasibinomial family. If you have overdispersion, standard
errors from glm will be unrealistically small. Make sure your model fits
in glm before you believe the standard errors, or use the quasibionomial
family.

Steve Ellison
LGC
array chip <arrayprofile <at> yahoo.com> writes:

[snip]
dataset:
fit<-glm(cbind(positive,total-positive)~treatment,test,family=binomial)
thought
Sometimes I've seen it called "binomial regression", or just 
"a binomial generalized linear model"
different p
summary(fit) gives you p-values from a Wald test.
  anova() gives you tests based on the Likelihood Ratio Test.
  In general the LRT is more accurate.
"percentage"
glm(percentage~treatment,weights=total,data=tests,family=binomial)

 is equivalent to the model you fitted above.
variable
Don't quite know what you mean here.  How is the situation "almost
the same as ANOVA" different from the situation you described above?
Do you mean when there are multiple factors? or ???

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