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Under-dispersion - a stats question?

"Martin Henry H. Stevens" <HStevens at muohio.edu> writes:
I don't think it is safe to say anything general about this without
knowledge of the model and the subject matter. Residual deviances can
be terribly misleading. Consider for instance this:

y <- c(0,1); w <- c(50,50)
summary(glm(y~1, binomial, weights=w))
y1 <- .5; w1 <- 100
summary(glm(y1~1, binomial, weights=w1))

Notice that coeff. and s.e. is exactly the same, but not the residual
deviances.

Now, in the first case, did the zeros and ones sort themselves into
two completely separated groups, or was that just because data was
given pre-tabulated?