Dear R-helpers, First, double apologies because the question is not directly related to R, and also probably quite simple. I have observed (with many data) that given 2 series X and Y cor(X,Y) and cor(log(X), log(Y)) differs only very slightly. I suspect this is because log(x) is monotonous, ... but I am unable to demonstrate it. (perhaps it is also wrong ?). Would somebody here be able and kind enough to put me on the rigth track (a piece of clue or a link would be nice). Thanks Vincent
correlation question
1 message · vincent@7d4.com