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Interpreting coefficients in linear models with interaction terms

6 messages · Rolf Turner, Peter Dalgaard, theundergrad +1 more

#
Hi, 

I am trying to interpret the coefficients in the model: RateOfMotorPlay ~
TestNumber + Sex + TestNumber * Sex where there are thee different tests and
Sex is (obviously) binary. My results are: Residuals:
   Min     1Q Median     3Q    Max 
-86.90 -26.28  -7.68  22.52 123.74 

Coefficients:
                 Estimate Std. Error t value Pr(>|t|)    
(Intercept)        29.430      6.248   4.710 4.80e-06 ***
TestNumber2        56.231      8.837   6.364 1.47e-09 ***
TestNumber3        75.972     10.061   7.551 1.82e-12 ***
SexM                7.101      9.845   0.721    0.472    
TestNumber2:SexM  -16.483     13.854  -1.190    0.236    
TestNumber3:SexM  -24.571     15.343  -1.601    0.111    
---
Signif. codes:  0 ?***? 0.001 ?**? 0.01 ?*? 0.05 ?.? 0.1 ? ? 1 

Residual standard error: 40.97 on 188 degrees of freedom
Multiple R-squared: 0.3288,	Adjusted R-squared: 0.3109 
F-statistic: 18.42 on 5 and 188 DF,  p-value: 7.231e-15 

I am looking for one number that will represent the significance of the
interaction term. I was thinking of doing an F test comparing this model to
one without the interaction. When I do this, I get a highly significant
result. I am not exactly sure how to interpret this. In particular, it seems
strange to me to have a significant interaction term without both
independent variables being significant. Any advice would be highly
appreciated. 
Thanks!



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#
We don't do people's homework for them.

But since you seem to have put in at least a little bit of your
own effort .....  It is perfectly possible for there to be an interaction
without there being main effects.

Consider two factors A and B each with two levels.  Let mu_11 be
the population mean when A is at level 1 and B is at level 1, and so
on.

Suppose mu_11 = 1, mu_12 = -1, mu_21 = -1, and mu_22 = 1.

Then there are no main effects; A averages to 0, as does B.

But there is an elephant-ful of interaction.

     cheers,

         Rolf Turner

     cheers,

         Rolf Turner
On 01/13/2013 10:56 AM, theundergrad wrote:
#
On Jan 12, 2013, at 23:33 , Rolf Turner wrote:

            
Also note that coefficients for main effects in the present of interactions have a different interpretation, depending on the coding of contrasts. In the summary table you cite, the value 7.101 is actually the effect of Sex within TestNumber1 and the interaction terms are the differences between that effect and those of Sex within the other two groups. Only if the latter terms are set to zero, the coefficient for Sex becomes the Sex effect for all groups. (All assuming that you haven't been messing with options("contrasts"))

Best,
Peter D.

  
    
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On Jan 12, 2013, at 5:00 PM, peter dalgaard wrote:

            
I will step over the line (or ellipse) that defines my professional  
credentials and say that one should never attempt the maneuver  
described in the subject line. Instead one should construct and  
compare the effect estimates. With R that is most compactly done with  
'predict' methods.
#
Hi, 

I have very limited (one class and the rest self-taught) statistics
background (I am a comparative biology major) working on an independent
study. I think that I am beginning to understand:

The coefficient SexM is the slope estimate for TestNumber1. If I add the
coefficients for the other two interaction terms to the coefficient of SexM,
I will get the slope estimate for the other two tests. 

How would I quantify the significance of the interaction and SexM in the
model? If, as I have done previously and as David suggests, I look at three
different models each using only one test, I can quantify the effect of SexM
simply by looking at the associated p-value. If, however, I chose to look at
the interaction model in order to reduce the number of tests conducted , I
do not have one number to look at that quantifies the significance of sex or
the interaction. I thought about doing two F-tests, one comparing this model
to a model without interaction (to find the significance of the interaction)
and one comparing this model to one with only TestNumber (to find the total
significance of sex). When I do this, I get a p-value of 0.006 for the first
test and 0.3 for the second. My understanding of this is that SexM is
non-significant; however, the relationship between SexM and RateOfMotorPlay
significantly changes with TestNumber. This seems strange to me, but I seem
to be hearing that it is possible. If this is true, I think that reporting
that sex is non-significant is adequate and I do not need to report anything
about the interaction since my research question is related to the effect of
sex, not the change in the effect of sex over time. Does this approach
adequately address the issue of whether or not sex is related to
RateOfMotorPlay?

Thank you all so much for you helpful responces



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#
On Jan 12, 2013, at 7:28 PM, theundergrad wrote:

            
The number of major issues of confusion in what follows suggest that this is a topic for which your training has inadequately prepared you. You really need to be talking to your advisor about getting some proper directed reading. If your advisor has not the proper training in this area he should direct you to someone in your institution who has that capability.
It would only make sense to talk about a "slope estimate" if there were a continuous variable in the set of independent variables ... and there is not.
Not a specific enough statement from which I can extract meaning to judge truth or falsity even if you were talking about mean estimates.
No. You failed to comprehend what I wrote.
Exactly.
Right. Sometimes there will be a "significant" interaction involving a "non-significant main effect".
It sounds as though you have missed the most interesting aspect. If the effect of sex varies between treatments, wouldn't that be of immense interest?
Please stop behaving as a typical Nabble user and learn to post context.
--

David Winsemius
Alameda, CA, USA