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Relating species abundance and cover

1 message · Karen Kotschy

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To Philip, Carsten, Etienne, Ben and Chris

I really want to thank all of you for the time and effort you put into 
answering my question. You guys rock!! It gives me such faith in the power 
of open-source communities like this, and makes me want to contribute in 
turn where possible!

Thanks, Philip, for your insightful questions and helping me to think 
about the data more clearly. I was being stupid with the zeroes: yes, they 
do result from aggregating the data, and they do represent cases where a 
species did not occur in a particular sampling unit (so no cover or 
abundance recorded). All records of abundance for a species have matching 
records of cover. Since I am mainly interested in how strongly correlated 
the 2 measures are, I think I can happily leave out the zeroes, since 
I am only interested in abundance vs cover where these were recorded. You 
have reminded me to think carefully about what the aggregation of my data 
means for the analysis, though. Ben, my cover data is not in the form of 
point counts so that is not an option. Also, I can't use raw counts for 
abundance because of unequal sampling effort/area.

I have decided that correlation coefficients are probably fine for my 
purposes. I have calculated Spearman and Kendall correlations, and used 
Pearson correlations and model II regression on log-transformed data (as 
you did, Etienne), as well as on ranked data. These all indicate a strong 
positive correlation, and a linear relationship with transformed data, and 
give a consistent picture.

Beta regression looks like a really useful tool that, even if I don't use 
it here, I may well use for some other aspects of my project. Thanks Ben 
for pointing me to it. 

Carsten: did you imply that beta regression is necesarily model I 
regression (no variance in predictor variable)?? I'd be interested to hear 
anyone's thoughts on how much of a limitation this is for situations where 
both y and x are random variables. Is it the same as for OLS regression, 
where OLS is acceptable if the error variance in x is less than a third of 
that in y?

Thanks again!

Cheers
Karen
On Wed 27Oct10, Philip Dixon wrote: