Option valuation for arbitrary distribution using monte carlo simulation
Probably my question is quite trivial, however could somebody clarify me why I need to have some stable distribution instead having any arbitrary distribution? I know what the stable distribution is however could not get the reason in the asset price generation context. Thanks andregards, -- View this message in context: http://r.789695.n4.nabble.com/Option-valuation-for-arbitrary-distribution-using-monte-carlo-simulation-tp4095718p4103558.html Sent from the Rmetrics mailing list archive at Nabble.com.