Zivot vs. Engle vs. Stoffer - help with the meaning of different GARCH notations, please!
Brian G. Peterson wrote:
[... skip (about some references) ...]
Eq's [1],[3],[5] in your list all refer to an AR(1) model for the returns, of the variance modified by a white-noise parameter.
I don't think this is an accurate statement. In Eq 1 the mean is modeled by 'c', that is a constant. In Eq 3 the mean is modeled by 'm(t)' -- on the surface at least an arbitrary time series model that could be ARMA or whatever. Eq 5 assumes a constant mean of zero. The other difference in the equations is whether or not 'e(t)' is the residuals or the standardized residuals. Patrick Burns patrick at burns-stat.com +44 (0)20 8525 0696 http://www.burns-stat.com (home of S Poetry and "A Guide for the Unwilling S User")
Eq's [2],[4],[6] in your list all describe the GARCH(1,1) "generalized" extension of the basic ARCH process, which does indeed utilize an ARMA process to model y^2(t). See the discussion around and following Shumway and Stoffer's Eq. 5.45 or Zivot and Wang's Eq. 7.6 Regards, - Brian On 2/2/08, *Brian G. Peterson* <brian at braverock.com <mailto:brian at braverock.com>> wrote: tom soyer wrote:
> Hi,
>
> I have a question with regard to different GARCH notations I
found in the
> literature, and I am wondering if anyone knows how to reconcile these
> differences. Below are three different notations that supposedly
all define
> the GARCH(1,1) process:
>
> In Zivot's book, MFTSWS, the GARCH(1,1) process is defined as:
> [1]: Y(t) = c + e(t), and
> [2]: sigma^2(t) = a0 + a1*e^2(t-1) + b1*sigma^2(t-1)
I just looked in my current copy of Zivot and Wang MFTSwS+ (2006), p. 230, Eqs 7.4 and following, and your notation here doesn't match what's in the reference (your Eq [2] appears equivalent to Eq. 7.5). perhaps next time you can be more specific in your reference (pages and Eq. numbers?)
> In Engle's paper, the GARCH(1,1) process is defined (in financial
notation),
> like this:
> [3]: r(t) = m(t) + sqrt(h(t))*e(t), and
> [4]: h(t+1) = a0 + a1*h(t)*e^2(t) + b1*h(t)
I don't know which Engle paper you're referring to. With the possible exception of m(t) in your Eq[3] and the use of t+1 as the target in Eq[4] (thus specifying the prediction), Eq [4] is equivalent to Eq [2] and Eq [6]
> In Stoffer's book, the GARCH(1,1) is define as:
> [5]: Y(t) = sigma(t)*e(t), and
> [6]: sigma^2(t) = a0 + a1*Y^2(t-1) + b1*sigma^2(t-1)
Shumway and Stoffer "Time Series Analysis and Its Applications, 2nd Ed."(2006), p. 286 Eqs. 5.30 and 5.44 match your Eq [5] and [6] and match Zivot&Wang's representation. Note that Shumway and Stoffer also has several fairly extensive examples of working with GARCH models in R.
> Does anyone know if all three above are just different ways of
saying the
> same thing, or are they drastically different with respect to the
> specification of the GARCH model to be fitted?
Notation is always a real pain to sort out as you are reading various
papers and books. It is not uncommon to find errors in the references,
which is usually cleared up only via looking further back in time to
more primary sources.
So, without precise references, I can only give you a qualified "these
models all appear equivalent".
Regards,
- Brian
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