I calculate the risk of a particular spread using the underlying assets
as you suggested in 1>
However, your risk if you are short the spread is (potentially)
different than your risk if you are long the spread, so keep that in
mind as well.
Another approach is to calculate the portfolio risk of the trading
strategy, regardless of the underlying assets, but you need trade and P
& L history for that approach.
Regards,
- Brian
"Bogaso" <bogaso.christofer at gmail.com> wrote:
Hi all, My question is not directly R related but rather a finance related question. Therefore I was wondering wheher I find a reliable answer here. Here I wanted to calculate VaR for basis (spot-future). There could be two approaches : 1: Assuming basis as a portfolio of two assets and then calculate the risk of the spread, 2 : Create a historical price series of basis then calculate VaR like single asset portfolio. Which one would be correct approach? In my opinion 1st is correct because, as basis can get any value like +ve & -ve, cashflow is not well defined in the sense that, if I sell basis (as an asset) and that time basis is negative, then I actually paying money for selling my asset !!! and secondly I cannot calculate percentage/logarithmic return for basis as basis can take zero-value as well. Can anyone validate that? What is the standard approach for calculating risk of a spread series? Should not we consider the fundamental risk factors (like in basis-case they are spot & future)? Best --
-- Brian G. Peterson http://braverock.com/brian/ Ph: 773-459-4973 IM: bgpbraverock