Dear all
I have modified my
program?according to?your?recommendation?but
unfortunately I still face same problem. I attached the program, data and
out put for your consideration.
Thank you very much and?waiting
to hera from you.
With many kind,
?
--- On?Fri, 2/8/13, alexios ghalanos?<alexios at 4dscape.com>?wrote:
????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????? From: alexios ghalanos <alexios at 4dscape.com> Subject: Re: [R-SIG-Finance] Question To: "pantea hafezian" <pantea_hafezian at yahoo.com> Cc: r-sig-finance at r-project.org Date: Friday, February 8, 2013, 1:19 AM Please follow the guidelines and post a reproducible example next time. 1. What is data(Gold), where can we find it? 2. There is no model called "egarch" in the specification. It is "eGARCH" You are starting the model with 100 data points using the eGARCH model and the normal distribution. It is quite likely, that the solution converges to one which is on the boundary of covariance stationarity. I have replicated this : ######################################## set.seed(10) X = rnorm(1000) spec =ugarchspec(variance.model=list(model="eGARCH"),distribution.model = "norm") roll = ugarchroll(spec, data = X, n.start = 100,? refit.every = 500, refit.window = "moving", solver = "solnp", fit.control = list(), calculate.VaR = TRUE, VaR.alpha = c(0.01, 0.025, 0.05), keep.coef = TRUE) as.data.frame(roll) ######################################## See the NaNs in the sigma. Solutions: 1. Use more more data for the estimation start (e.g. 200). 2. Use a different model (e.g. sGARCH, gjrGARCH etc). Also, read some of the older posts in this forum on the amount of data to use and why it is a bad idea to use so little data. -Alexios ? ? ? ? On 08/02/2013
01:34, pantea hafezian wrote:
Dear Sir/Ms
Thank you for your valuable and very helpful
package (rugarch). Actually
I am going to compare different GARCH models
(VaR) by using this package
but unfortunately? I face a problem. The
problem is related? to the back
testing method. For instance, in Qupiec?
test, the value of K (LRUC)? is
amounting to 0 and consequently p-value is
equal to 1 for all models. I
performed this procedure several times with
various data but the results
is same as I mentioned even for your own
example. It would be appreciate
if let me know the result is supposed to be
like this or the problem
rises from my programming.
My program is enclosed to this email.
Thank you again and I look forward hearing
from you about that.
Sincerely Yours,
Pantea Hafezian
PhD candidate in Finance,
University Technology Malaysia (UTM)
?
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