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[R-meta] A dataset with 0 heterogeneity

Guido,

I share the pdf file here: https://ann.nl.tab.digital/s/aNPBFedC6s8eXMR

Regarding the "second option feasible", the second option is the second point you mentioned in your first mail:

- all differences between individual study results can be explained by chance, i.e., random deviations due to (limited) sample sizes in individual studies.


Could it explain the 0 heterogeneity in my example?

Best,
Iago