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[R-meta] Meta-analysis of single group attitude scores

Dear Michael and Wolfgang,

Thank you both very much for your helpful comments.
I have been testing the two methods suggested by Wolfgang on some fictional data to see where the differences lie, and I don?t fully understand the resulting sampling variances.

Fictional data of 2 studies:
Both are attitudes on a 7-point scale (neutral point = 4, range = 6) with n = 100.
Both studies have a mean score of 5. 
Study 1 SD = 1
Study 2 SD = 2.

With the first idea outlined by Wolfgang, the sampling variances are 0.015 (Study 1) and 0.01125 (Study 2).
With the second idea, the sampling variances are 0.000277 (Study 1) and 0.00111 (study 2).

So using the second idea, Study 2 results in a larger sampling variance, and therefore a less precise measurement, and inverse variance weighting results in a lower weight for this study. This seems to make sense as the SD for Study 2 is higher than for Study 1. 

However, using the first idea, the sampling variance of Study 2 is actually lower, which suggests that even though the SD of that study is higher, the study is more precise. 

Am I interpreting the results wrong? Or could it be that the first idea already incorporates the inverse variance calculation?

Thank you for your help!

Best wishes,
Tommy
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Dr Tommy van Steen
Research Associate in Psychology
University of Bath