Hello all, I want to include correlation coefficients in a random-effects
model for meta-analysis. If the majority of the correlations are positive,
could I use the absolute values of any negative correlations if such
correlations would have been positive had one of the measures been reverse
scored? As an example, say there is a negative correlation between a
measure for social anxiety and a measure for extraversion. Would it be
possible to take the absolute value of the correlation under the assumption
that the correlation would be positive if the measure for extraversion was
reverse scored? Any answers would be appreciated, and if anyone knows of
source material that talks about this process, the reference would be
appreciated as well.
[[alternative HTML version deleted]]