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[R-meta] Dear Wolfgang

Yes, if the effect size measure is the same, one can make such a comparison. Also, there should not be any overlap in the studies included in the two meta-analyses (as otherwise the two estimates are not independent, as assumed by the test). And yes, you don't need sample sizes or tau^2 values or anything else - just the two estimates and their corresponding standard errors. And it doesn't depend on what random effects structure was used in the two meta-analyses -- assuming that the structures used in the two meta-analyses were appropriate for the studies at hand.

Best,
Wolfgang