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[R-meta] Question on funnel plot interpretation

There is a misunderstanding. Fishers Zr's sampling variance (or error)  is not correlated with Zr. Correlation coefficent r is correlated with is variance or error. So, if you transformed r to Zr, as you said in early email, variance should be a better measure of precision contrast to inverse n.

Best,
Yefeng
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