[R-meta] mean-variance relationships introduces additional heterogeneity, how?
Responses below.
On Mon, Oct 25, 2021 at 4:21 PM Luke Martinez <martinezlukerm at gmail.com> wrote:
Sure, thanks. Along the same lines, if I see that the unconditional distribution of the SMD estimates is multi-modal or right or left skewed (perhaps due to extreme outliers), but the unconditional distribution of the corresponding LRR estimates looks more symmetric and well-behaved, does that also empirically suggest a mean-sd relationship in one or more groups?
I'm not sure that it implies a mean-sd relationship. But I think it does suggest that LRR might be a more appropriate metric.
PS. Is there a reason for exploring the mean-sd relationship specifically in the control group?
No, you could certainly examine the relationships in the treatment group(s) as well.