[R-meta] Random and mixed effects models with the Metafor rma.mv function
-----Original Message----- From: Edwin Lebrija Trejos [mailto:elebrija at hotmail.com] Sent: Monday, 31 January, 2022 21:52 To: Viechtbauer, Wolfgang (SP); r-sig-meta-analysis at r-project.org Subject: Re: Random and mixed effects models with the Metafor rma.mv function Dear Wolfgang, Thanks for your illustrating replies with links. Some follow up (I am copy-pasting the relevant bits of conversation): 1) ">- Moreover, agreeing that it's important to control for dependence among
outcomes, I wonder if additionally controlling for the dependence of outcomes within studies is also in place. This, since each published study used in the meta-analysis reports experimental outcomes for several species tested in the same study. Is the following metaphor model syntax appropriate to correct for such within study dependency? rma.mv (yi, vi, random = list (~1|Species, ~1| Study.ID/ Outcome.ID), data=dat), where Study.ID is a variable that identifies each published study?
Yes. Whether this is fully sufficient to account for within-study dependence depends on whether the sampling errors are independent or not. This has been discussed many times on this mailing list. But adding study as a random effect is generally something I would do." Can you refer me to some of those discussions or suggest some specific search keywords?
Please search the archives; see: https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-sig-meta-analysis
2) ">My question here is: isn't it better to explore the sources of heterogenenity in
the data taking advantage of the mixed model approach implemented by the rmw.mv function and include in the same model both categorical and continuous
variables.
Or, is there an advantage to performing" Subgroup" analysis?
See: https://www.metafor-project.org/doku.php/tips:comp_two_independent_estimates Generally, my preference is to use meta-regression models instead of subgrouping." A model that uses the full data intuitively seems preferred to me, yet I am not sure I can pinpoint the reasons for the preference. The example on the link you sent shows no difference in results between the analysis of subgroups and a meta-regression, providing that an "~inner | outer" formula and a diagonal variance structure are specified in the random and structure arguments of the rma.mv function, respectively... So, is a meta- regression preferred because it allows to choose (and test) between independent or pooled estimations of the residual heterogeneity? And, is this possibility relevant because of the reasons detailed the the referred paper by Rubio- Aparicio, et al. 2020? (https://doi.org/10.1080/00220973.2018.1561404)
Yes, that paper discusses the same issue.
Thanks again for your kind attention. Edwin