-----Original Message-----
From: R-sig-meta-analysis <r-sig-meta-analysis-bounces at r-project.org> On Behalf
Of Zhouhan Jin via R-sig-meta-analysis
Sent: Tuesday, May 28, 2024 18:28
To: R Special Interest Group for Meta-Analysis <r-sig-meta-analysis at r-
project.org>; Michael Dewey <lists at dewey.myzen.co.uk>
Cc: Zhouhan Jin <zjin65 at uwo.ca>
Subject: Re: [R-meta] Hypothesis Testing of R2 in metafor
Thanks for the link regarding the CIs for R^2.
But my question was: can one, in principle, take the p-value used to test the
null that all model coefs are zero to also serve as a null hypothesis test of
R^2 being zero or there is a separate hypothesis test for R^2 (again in
principle)?
In fact, is such a principle used in meta-analysis as I (think) it is used in
regular regression (below)?
summary(lm(mpg ~ cyl, data= mtcars))$fstatistic
Best wishes,
Zhouhan
On May 28, 2024 at 06:32 -0400, Michael Dewey <lists at dewey.myzen.co.uk>, wrote:
Dear Zhouhan
Does https://www.metafor-project.org/doku.php/tips:ci_for_r2 help?
Michael
On 28/05/2024 04:34, Zhouhan Jin via R-sig-meta-analysis wrote:
Hello Colleagues,
My understanding is that it is common to report the p-value for the omnibus null
hypothesis that all the coefficients in a model are zero, next to an R^2 value
for an rma.mv()/rma() model.
If the above assumption is correct, then, should one also take that p-value to
be a null hypothesis test of R^2 being zero or there is a separate test for R^2?
Thanks in advance.
Best wishes,
Zhouhan