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[R-meta] mean-variance relationships introduces additional heterogeneity, how?

Thanks for the clarification. Regarding the plots, you're saying that
I plot the sds of the control groups against the means of the control
groups **in each study** or **across the studies**? (Again, my studies
are longitudinal.)

If in each study, then for studies that provide at least three time
points, I can plot the Means (m_itj) and SDs (s_itj) of proportions
for each group i at time t in study j across the three (or more) time
points to see if there is a positive relationship between m_itj and
s_itj .

If across the studies, plotting the mean-sd relation across
longitudinal studies would seem to require that the same time points
across the studies align in terms of their time intervals. In other
words, the mean-sd relation for each group across longitudinal studies
could be contaminated by the differences in time intervals for the
testing occasions.

This might be a reason to inspect this relation a bit more locally
(perhap within studies). On the other hand, to do so, I'll need to
have studies with at least three time points. Thus, if I have studies
that only followed a pre-post-control design, then exploring that
relation locally may not be possible.

Aside from alignment of time points across the studies, there may be
other differences across the studies in terms of treatment, or setting
etc. that affect the mean-sd relationship which again makes it
difficult to explore the mean-sd relationship across the studies.

Perhaps, one could argue that because anything that affects the mean,
affects the SD (in some way), then, such a relationship can still be
explored across the studies.

I would be curious to know your thoughts on these reflections?

Luke
On Mon, Oct 25, 2021 at 7:50 AM James Pustejovsky <jepusto at gmail.com> wrote: