Hi everybody I am performing a meta-analysis (with 'metafor' R-project) as described by Becker (1988), and I compute the standardized mean change for a treatment and control group. I compute a (standardized) effect size measure for pretest posttest control group designs, where the characteristic, response, or dependent variable assessed in the individual studies is a quantitative variable (Morris 2008). Now, two new articles are published recently with only the posttests. Question: can SMDs still be calculated with only the posttest (and sd) of treatment and control groups? Thank you in advance, Roberto
[R-meta] Calculating SMD from posttest only - is this possible?
7 messages · P. Roberto Bakker, Wolfgang Viechtbauer, James Pustejovsky +2 more
2 days later
Hi Roberto, Yes. In fact, that's essentially the original definition of the SMD, that is, the difference between two groups at the posttest divided by the SD (at the posttest). One can debate to what extent the standardized mean change (of a single group), the difference between two standardized mean changes (of two groups), and the standardized mean difference at the posttest (again, of two groups) can be combined in a single analysis. The canonical reference regarding this issue is: Morris, S. B., & DeShon, R. P. (2002). Combining effect size estimates in meta-analysis with repeated measures and independent-groups designs. Psychological Methods, 7(1), 105-125. Best, Wolfgang -----Original Message----- From: R-sig-meta-analysis [mailto:r-sig-meta-analysis-bounces at r-project.org] On Behalf Of P. Roberto Bakker Sent: Thursday, 03 October, 2019 18:54 To: r-sig-meta-analysis at r-project.org Subject: [R-meta] Calculating SMD from posttest only - is this possible? Hi everybody I am performing a meta-analysis (with 'metafor' R-project) as described by Becker (1988), and I compute the standardized mean change for a treatment and control group. I compute a (standardized) effect size measure for pretest posttest control group designs, where the characteristic, response, or dependent variable assessed in the individual studies is a quantitative variable (Morris 2008). Now, two new articles are published recently with only the posttests. Question: can SMDs still be calculated with only the posttest (and sd) of treatment and control groups? Thank you in advance, Roberto
1 day later
Roberto, Just to add a bit to Wolfgang's response: I think it is helpful to consider this question under the framework of risk of bias. If an experiment is properly randomized and there is no attrition, then the difference in post-test means is an unbiased estimator of the average treatment effect (ATE). The same is true in a pre/post experiment: if the randomization is properly conducted and there is not attrition, then the difference in mean change scores is an unbiased estimator of the ATE (because the difference in pre-test means has expectation zero). In other words, both designs are used to estimate the same target parameter (albeit with different degrees of precision). Where discrepancies might arise is if the design isn't perfect, such as if the randomization might have been faulty (due to lack of allocation concealment or something) or if there is substantial attrition, either of which could lead to bias in the estimate of the ATE. The pre-post design is probably more robust to such imperfections because it adjusts for baseline differences. The post-test only design is likely less robust because there's no baseline covariates that could be used to adjust for differences between groups at post-test. Considered in light, whether it's a good idea to include post-test only designs depends on whether the post-test only designs are at low risk of bias. James On Sat, Oct 5, 2019 at 4:46 PM Viechtbauer, Wolfgang (SP) <
wolfgang.viechtbauer at maastrichtuniversity.nl> wrote:
Hi Roberto, Yes. In fact, that's essentially the original definition of the SMD, that is, the difference between two groups at the posttest divided by the SD (at the posttest). One can debate to what extent the standardized mean change (of a single group), the difference between two standardized mean changes (of two groups), and the standardized mean difference at the posttest (again, of two groups) can be combined in a single analysis. The canonical reference regarding this issue is: Morris, S. B., & DeShon, R. P. (2002). Combining effect size estimates in meta-analysis with repeated measures and independent-groups designs. Psychological Methods, 7(1), 105-125. Best, Wolfgang -----Original Message----- From: R-sig-meta-analysis [mailto: r-sig-meta-analysis-bounces at r-project.org] On Behalf Of P. Roberto Bakker Sent: Thursday, 03 October, 2019 18:54 To: r-sig-meta-analysis at r-project.org Subject: [R-meta] Calculating SMD from posttest only - is this possible? Hi everybody I am performing a meta-analysis (with 'metafor' R-project) as described by Becker (1988), and I compute the standardized mean change for a treatment and control group. I compute a (standardized) effect size measure for pretest posttest control group designs, where the characteristic, response, or dependent variable assessed in the individual studies is a quantitative variable (Morris 2008). Now, two new articles are published recently with only the posttests. Question: can SMDs still be calculated with only the posttest (and sd) of treatment and control groups? Thank you in advance, Roberto
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Hi Roberto, Just to add to the responses by Wolfgang and James. The Cochrane Handbook warns against combining SMDs based on change scores (pre-post comparisons) and post-test comparisons (see https://training.cochrane.org/handbook/current/chapter-10#section-10-5-2). The reason is that the standard deviation used in the denominator of the SMD is different for change scores and post-tests. Best wishes, Guido
Dr. Guido Schwarzer Institute of Medical Biometry and Statistics, Faculty of Medicine and Medical Center - University of Freiburg Postal address: Stefan-Meier-Str. 26, D-79104 Freiburg Phone: +49/761/203-6668 Mail: sc at imbi.uni-freiburg.de Homepage: http://www.imbi.uni-freiburg.de ORCID iD: https://orcid.org/0000-0001-6214-9087 R-book: https://www.springer.com/gp/book/9783319214153
Dear Roberto You may have already thought of this but including a categorical moderator to distinguish the designs would be useful. Of course if it shows that the designs give different results you have the problem of explaining it but at least you know. This is a supplement to the advice from W, J and G. Michael
On 05/10/2019 22:40, Viechtbauer, Wolfgang (SP) wrote:
Hi Roberto, Yes. In fact, that's essentially the original definition of the SMD, that is, the difference between two groups at the posttest divided by the SD (at the posttest). One can debate to what extent the standardized mean change (of a single group), the difference between two standardized mean changes (of two groups), and the standardized mean difference at the posttest (again, of two groups) can be combined in a single analysis. The canonical reference regarding this issue is: Morris, S. B., & DeShon, R. P. (2002). Combining effect size estimates in meta-analysis with repeated measures and independent-groups designs. Psychological Methods, 7(1), 105-125. Best, Wolfgang -----Original Message----- From: R-sig-meta-analysis [mailto:r-sig-meta-analysis-bounces at r-project.org] On Behalf Of P. Roberto Bakker Sent: Thursday, 03 October, 2019 18:54 To: r-sig-meta-analysis at r-project.org Subject: [R-meta] Calculating SMD from posttest only - is this possible? Hi everybody I am performing a meta-analysis (with 'metafor' R-project) as described by Becker (1988), and I compute the standardized mean change for a treatment and control group. I compute a (standardized) effect size measure for pretest posttest control group designs, where the characteristic, response, or dependent variable assessed in the individual studies is a quantitative variable (Morris 2008). Now, two new articles are published recently with only the posttests. Question: can SMDs still be calculated with only the posttest (and sd) of treatment and control groups? Thank you in advance, Roberto
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That is correct when using standardized mean change values using change score standardization -- and indeed, that's not something that should done. However, the standardized mean change using raw score standardization also standardizes based on the variability at a single time point and hence is in principle comparable to the standardized mean difference at the posttest (leaving aside other issues, such as time effects). I would still be very careful when doing this and I very much like Michael's suggestion to examine this via a moderator analysis. Best, Wolfgang -----Original Message----- From: R-sig-meta-analysis [mailto:r-sig-meta-analysis-bounces at r-project.org] On Behalf Of Guido Schwarzer Sent: Monday, 07 October, 2019 14:16 To: P. Roberto Bakker; r-sig-meta-analysis at r-project.org Subject: Re: [R-meta] Calculating SMD from posttest only - is this possible? Hi Roberto, Just to add to the responses by Wolfgang and James. The Cochrane Handbook warns against combining SMDs based on change scores (pre-post comparisons) and post-test comparisons (see https://training.cochrane.org/handbook/current/chapter-10#section-10-5-2). The reason is that the standard deviation used in the denominator of the SMD is different for change scores and post-tests. Best wishes, Guido
Dr. Guido Schwarzer Institute of Medical Biometry and Statistics, Faculty of Medicine and Medical Center - University of Freiburg Postal address: Stefan-Meier-Str. 26, D-79104 Freiburg Phone: +49/761/203-6668 Mail: sc at imbi.uni-freiburg.de Homepage: http://www.imbi.uni-freiburg.de ORCID iD: https://orcid.org/0000-0001-6214-9087 R-book: https://www.springer.com/gp/book/9783319214153
Hi Wolfgang, Guido, Michael, and James, Your information and explanation are really helpful, interesting and important. A lot of my questions now have a clear answer, and I understand better what needs to be done. I will bring your information to my meta-analysis group. As your information is published in the R-sig-meta-analysis Archives, other people will benefit. Thank you very much and best regards, Roberto Op ma 7 okt. 2019 om 13:13 schreef Viechtbauer, Wolfgang (SP) < wolfgang.viechtbauer at maastrichtuniversity.nl>:
That is correct when using standardized mean change values using change score standardization -- and indeed, that's not something that should done. However, the standardized mean change using raw score standardization also standardizes based on the variability at a single time point and hence is in principle comparable to the standardized mean difference at the posttest (leaving aside other issues, such as time effects). I would still be very careful when doing this and I very much like Michael's suggestion to examine this via a moderator analysis. Best, Wolfgang -----Original Message----- From: R-sig-meta-analysis [mailto: r-sig-meta-analysis-bounces at r-project.org] On Behalf Of Guido Schwarzer Sent: Monday, 07 October, 2019 14:16 To: P. Roberto Bakker; r-sig-meta-analysis at r-project.org Subject: Re: [R-meta] Calculating SMD from posttest only - is this possible? Hi Roberto, Just to add to the responses by Wolfgang and James. The Cochrane Handbook warns against combining SMDs based on change scores (pre-post comparisons) and post-test comparisons (see https://training.cochrane.org/handbook/current/chapter-10#section-10-5-2). The reason is that the standard deviation used in the denominator of the SMD is different for change scores and post-tests. Best wishes, Guido -- Dr. Guido Schwarzer Institute of Medical Biometry and Statistics, Faculty of Medicine and Medical Center - University of Freiburg Postal address: Stefan-Meier-Str. 26, D-79104 Freiburg Phone: +49/761/203-6668 Mail: sc at imbi.uni-freiburg.de Homepage: http://www.imbi.uni-freiburg.de ORCID iD: https://orcid.org/0000-0001-6214-9087 R-book: https://www.springer.com/gp/book/9783319214153