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Most principled reporting of mixed-effect model regression coefficients

Thanks, Maarten. So I was planning on reporting R^2 (along with AIC) for the overall model fit, not for each predictor, since the regression coefficients themselves give a good indication of relationship (though I wasn't aware that R^2 is "riddled with complications") Is Henrik only saying this only with regard to LMMs and GLMMs?

When you say "there is no agreed upon way to calculate effect sizes" I'm a little confused. I read through your stack exchange posting, but Henrik's answer refers to standardized effect size. You write, later down, "Whenever possible, we report unstandardized effect sizes which is in line with general recommendation of how to report effect sizes"

I'm also working on a systematic review where there's disagreement over whether effect sizes should be standardized, but it does seem that yield any kind of meaningful comparison, effect sizes would have to be standardized. I don't usually report standardized effect sizes...however, there are times when I z-score IVs to put them on the same scale, and I guess the output of that would be a standardized effect size. I wasn't aware of push back on that practice. What issues would arise from this?

I learned that mixed models are used predominantly for overall predictions vs individual coefficients, but I still was under the impression that one could derive effect sizes from predictor variables, and that this was largely sound. Am I incorrect?

In this particular study, there are four timepoints with 1286 students, though at each timepoint, there are roughly 1000 students. All students complete the same executive function tasks, so in that regard, there isn't really a formal factorial design at play, though there are multiple independent variables.

Best,

James
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