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comparing posterior means

Dear Douglas, Harold and Emmanuel,

The rather technical discussion is difficult to follow for me and I 
still feel unsure about what the right answer is to my question. To test 
the difference between the two posterior means, does it make sense to 
test for the difference of the two random effects , u0A-u0B, and use the 
(co)variances of both to test H0: u0A - u0B = 0? Or should the variance 
of the fixed effect b0 also be taken into account (which I now believe 
is not needed)? Please help me. Humble regards,

Ben.
On 15-10-2014 20:16, Douglas Bates wrote: