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Why am I getting a Variance of 0 for my random effect

On Wed, Aug 11, 2010 at 2:18 PM, Kevin E. Thorpe
<kevin.thorpe at utoronto.ca> wrote:
When the random effects variance is zero the model reverts to the
linear regression model in the sense that the two models give the same
predicted values, the same log-likelihood, coefficient estimates for
the fixed effects and standard errors.  That is, there is no need to
continue to represent the model as a linear mixed model if the only
variance component parameter's estimated value is zero.