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Random effect variance = zero

Ben Bolker <bbolker at ...> writes:
PS Andrew Gelman has a thoughtful post on this subject (the fact
that in many practical cases there's insufficient information in the
data to determine the among-group variance) from a Bayesian perspective
(a "stalwart" Bayesian view, using informative priors, rather than
a "cringing" Bayesian view that tries to come up with a weakly
informative prior that fixes (?) the problem (?) of zero variances ...)

http://andrewgelman.com/2014/08/11/
   discussion-sander-greenland-posterior-predictive-checks/
(broken URL to make Gmane happy)