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Interpretation of lmer's sigma for binomial data

I would like to second the request for enlightenment on this issue.
In particular, how does this fit with the recent posting from Jarrod
Hadfield:
Hadfield's posting makes perfectly good sense to me.  I have done
simulation experiments similar to that which he suggested, and have
found what he said I would find.  Also I did some simple theoretical
manipulations which further confirmed his assertions.

So what is the quasibinomial family ***doing***, then?

	cheers,

		Rolf Turner
On 2/08/2010, at 10:27 AM, Rafael Laboissiere wrote:

            
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