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Comparing variance components

Hi Jarrod,

I have been trying to test a similar hypothesis for a while with only
limited success, so I wanted to thank you for your answer to Wen's
question. I did have a few additional questions of clarification, some
specific to my own data analysis.

For model.mcmc.a I think it is pretty straightforward to compare the
posterior distributions. For model.mcmc.b, now that you explicitly modeled
heterogenous variances for the residuals is it more informative to examine
the IC correlation for G for each Exp rather than the variances themselves?

For my specific problem I have binomial data. I have been modeling the data
as proportions (bounded by 0-1 but can logit or arcsinsqrt transform) as
well as modeling it using "multinomial2" on the raw data.

The issue I am running into is that the variance of G for one of the
experimental blocks is very close to the boundary condition, while the
other is larger, when modeled as a proportion, and the HPD are very wide. I
have been using inv-gamma priors and will play around with the parameter
expanded priors as suggested in your course notes.

For the multinomial2 model should the priors for the variance be the same?
The posterior means are not as close to the boundary condition (Exp1:G=0.8,
Exp2:G=0.3) but the HPD are still very wide (1e-17,1.13) for Exp2:G.

Any help is greatly appreciated

Dean