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How to calculate the level-1 variance of a GLMM (Poisson or Additive Over-dispersed Poisson) model?

Dear Graham,

to provide some hints regarding your problem (as I also asked something
like that some weeks ago), here is the mailing list thread where my
question was answered:

https://mailman.stat.ethz.ch/pipermail/r-sig-mixed-models/2014q3/022540.html

In general, you have to replace the "residual variance" of the binomial
distribution (pi^2/3) with that of the poisson distribution (ignoring
any overdispersion):

ln(1/ exp(?0) + 1)

where ?0 is the intercept on the link scale. (If I am wrong here, could
someone correct me, please?). Regarding the use of an observation-level
random intercept, this procedure should work accordingly (with one
additional variance term).

For the negative binomial, it seems a bit more tricky, and as a short
tip, I can only point you to this article:

http://www.springerplus.com/content/pdf/2193-1801-3-40.pdf

Because the variance of the negbin is not equal to the mean as in the
poisson, I would guess (I mean, really GUESS!!!), that ?0 from above
should be replaced by something like

?0 + alpha * ?0^2

where alpha = 1 / theta (which is the negbin-dispersion parameter as
given by glmer.nb or glm.nb for example, or glmmABMD, but I am not sure
for the latter...).

But bear in mind, that all this on the negbin is purely coming from a
non-statistician, and you should ask someone who acutally *knows* the
answer... ;-)

For the question on years: I do not know if there is a better
possibility than fitting several models (for each year of interest), but
you need enough data for this... using year as a random slope and
putting all data in one model to derive the icc will be more complicated
than fitting 3 or 4 models each without the random slope....I think...


Good luck.


Am 31.10.2014 um 11:27 schrieb Graham B. McNamara: