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choice of reference category only changes coefficient with uncorrelated random intercept and slope

Just stumbled over this thread, but it seems pretty obvious to me: A model where slope and intercept are independent will not have independence between the slope and the value anywhere else on the line (cov(beta,alpha+beta*x) = x*V(beta)). This is why that model is kind of weird... 

In particular, shifting the x-axis, thus changing the definition of the intercept will make the variance model substantially different in the independence case. If intercept and slope are correlated, you just get the same model parametrized differently. 

-pd