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Meaning of perfect correlation between by-intercept and by-slope adjustments

On Fri, May 13, 2011 at 10:51 PM, Douglas Bates <bates at stat.wisc.edu> wrote:
I am reading various stuff, trying to understand and cope with this
properly. Bottom line, using vector-valued random effects, in the
above case -- with a perfec correlation between random adjustments,
would be a case of overfitting?

Thanks!
Petar