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back log transformation

On 03/24/2011 06:37 AM, espesser wrote:
Can you give a reference to the previous discussion please?
Is the 0.5*var(Residual) to get the mean (rather than the median) of
TIME on the original scale ?  It seems reasonable but I wonder if you
could simplify your life a little bit by predicting the median rather
than the median ...
Don't quite know what you mean here.  It seems you're thinking about
estimating a marginal mean (unknown subject) rather than a conditional
mean.  Your approach seems reasonable but I wouldn't want to swear it
was right ...
This gets stickier.  The second 'random intercept' is from a second
random effect grouping factor?  If the random effects are independent,
this seems plausible -- otherwise the variance of the sum will not be
equal to the sum of the variances ...
If you want the marginal mean (i.e., something analogous to what you
are doing above), then you need to calculate the variance -- e.g. if the
value  is  (a+b*x + e_a + e_b*x + e_i) where e_a, e_b are random
intercept and slope and e_i is residual error, then **if** they were
all independent the variance would be var_a + var_b*x^2 + var_e.
However, a and b are generally correlated so I believe it would be
var_a + var_b*x^2 + 2*cov(a,b)*x + var_e.
Yes.

  As mentioned above, I think your life would be a bit easier if you
just decided that you wanted the median (which is invariant under
transformation) rather than the mean on the back-transformed scale ...