Skip to content
Prev 8446 / 20628 Next

Do glmer and glmmadmb calculate log likelihood on thesame scale ?

Curious.  I so boldly stuck my foot in my mouth about using corStruct
= "full" to equate to glmer(), yet the log likelihood remains
unchanged using it or not in another case I ran where I could get the
model to converge.  Interestingly, a correlation is printed when
corStruct = "full", but somehow the log likelihood and model df do not
change?  I am adding Ben Bolker to this (although he probably would
have seen it soon enough anyway).  A) because it may be relevant that
your original model converges in an older version of glmmadmb, but not
the one I am using. B) because I do not understand why the correlation
among random effects does not seem to affect the log likelihood and
model df in glmmadmb but does in glmer.

glmmadmb(formula = y ~ Visit + (Visit | subject), data = epil2,
    family = "poisson", corStruct = "full")
gives:

Number of observations: total=236, subject=59
Random effect variance(s):
Group=subject
            Variance StdDev Corr
(Intercept) 0.8881   0.9424 (Intr)
Visit       0.5399   0.7348 0.5399

Log-likelihood: -686.899

glmer(y ~ Visit + (Visit|subject), data = epil2, family = "poisson")

gives:

   AIC   BIC logLik deviance
 617.9 635.2 -303.9    607.9
Random effects:
 Groups  Name        Variance Std.Dev. Corr
 subject (Intercept) 0.88772  0.94219
         Visit       0.53592  0.73206  -0.034
Number of obs: 236, groups: subject, 59
On Thu, Jun 21, 2012 at 7:13 PM, David Duffy <David.Duffy at qimr.edu.au> wrote: