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glmmTMB: dispformula for mixed beta regression

Dear Mollie,

Thank you for your clarification. So, I can conclude that X2 has a
logarithmically inverse association with residuals' variance. But then
for interpretation purposes, should I say that: 0.147987 for X2 in the
dispersion model is the slope of that association when X2 is 0?

OR should I say that: for each unit of increase in X2, residuals'
variance decreases by exp(0.147987) = 1.16?

Thank you,
Tim M
On Mon, Jan 30, 2023 at 6:09 AM Mollie Brooks <mollieebrooks at gmail.com> wrote: