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contradictory odds ratios--a problem with the equation or the interpretation?

I don't know, but ... these are very small differences both 
absolutely (odds ratio of 0.4 vs 0.5) and in terms of the confidence 
intervals on each parameter (0.01-0.12 for Mandarin, even wider for 
Spanish).  A lot of the variation among language groups will also be 
included in the 'participant' random effect (since participants are 
effectively nested within language groups).

   If you look at the participant-by-participant predictions (i.e. 
including both the language group and the participant-level random 
effect in the prediction) do the results make more sense?

   Tangentially a little worried about your very high odds ratio for the 
intercept. At the baseline level your subjects have a probability of 
approximately 1-4e-26 (from plogis(58.45, lower.tail=FALSE)) of correct 
association?  Do you have a continuous predictor whose values are far 
from zero so that the model baseline doesn't make sense? This should be 
independent of the other issues, but makes me wonder if you have 
complete separation and/or other sources of numerical instability lurking?
On 5/10/21 1:15 PM, Johnathan Jones wrote: