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Including random effects creates structure in the residuals

Hi Paul,

Thank you for your response and interest in my question. While I agree that regression to the mean does exist in these settings, I don't get why this should yield such a correlation between the BLUPs and the residuals (after all, assuming the two are totally independent, you'd still get the same phenomenon you're describing, wouldn't you?). Could you explain why this should be the case? Maybe I'm missing a big point in your explanation, if so, please forgive me.

It got me thinking however, that the correlation between the BLUPs and the residuals could arise from a fundamental constraint in the data as you suggested and I think I now understand what is going on (again, if this is what you suggested, please forgive me as I might have misunderstood your point). A short summary is that it arises from an unbalanced design in the repeated measures (as some individuals do not come back to complete the study).

This can be seen in the following graph, which shows the residuals (e) against the BLUPs (u, which also contains the effect of "visit", but it doesn't impact much the trend here), depending on whether we have 1, 2, 3 or 4 repeated measures for that individual:
https://ibb.co/dDgF3H

It should be expected that there is a perfect linear covariation for only 1 visit, because the BLUP and the residual are basically non identifiable, while this constraint is fading as more repeated measures are added to the data. Does this interpretation makes sense to you?

Thank you for your help! Also the bit about checking residuals in GLMMs, very much interesting, I'll think about DARHMa next time I'll have to do this for a GLMM!

Cheers,
Pierre

Le mardi 27 f?vrier 2018, 12:03:17 CET Paul Johnson a ?crit :