Dear Colleagues, Apologies for crossposting (https://stats.stackexchange.com/q/545975/284623). I've two categorical moderators i.e., students' ***sex*** (`boys`, `girls`) and the ***school-gender system*** (`boy-only`, `girl-only`, `mixed`) in a model like: `y ~ sex + schoolgend`. My coefs are below. I can interpret three of the coefs but wonder how to interpret the third one from the top (.175)? Assume "intrcpt" represents the boys' mean in mixed schools. Estimate (Intercept) -0.189 schgendboy-only 0.180 schgendgirl-only 0.175 sexgirls 0.168 My interpretations of the coefficients are as follows: "(Intercept)": mean of y for boys in mixed schools = -.189 "schgendboy-only": diff. bet. boys in boy-only vs. mixed schools = +.180 "schgendgirl-only": diff. bet. ???????????????????????????? = +.175 "sexgirls": diff. bet. girls vs. boys in mixed schools = +.168 If my interpretation logic for all other coefs is correct, then, this third coef. must mean: diff. bet. boys in girl-only vs. mixed schools = +.175! (which makes no sense!) ps. I know I will end-up interpreting +1.75 as: diff. bet. girls in girl-only vs. mixed schools BUT this doesn't follow the interpretation logic for other coefs PLUS there are no labels in the output to show what's what! Many thanks, Simon
Help with interpreting one fixed-effect coefficient
9 messages · Juho Kristian Ruohonen, Stuart Luppescu, Fernando Pedro Bruna Quintas +1 more
Fellow student commenting here... As you suggest, schgendgirl-only can only ever apply to female students. Strictly speaking, it's the estimated mean difference between a student of any sex in a girls-only school and a similar student in a mixed school. But since such comparisons are only observed between girls, the estimate is necessarily informed by girl data only. So your intended interpretation of the coefficient is correct. su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 0.27 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com) kirjoitti:
Dear Colleagues, Apologies for crossposting ( https://stats.stackexchange.com/q/545975/284623). I've two categorical moderators i.e., students' ***sex*** (`boys`, `girls`) and the ***school-gender system*** (`boy-only`, `girl-only`, `mixed`) in a model like: `y ~ sex + schoolgend`. My coefs are below. I can interpret three of the coefs but wonder how to interpret the third one from the top (.175)? Assume "intrcpt" represents the boys' mean in mixed schools. Estimate (Intercept) -0.189 schgendboy-only 0.180 schgendgirl-only 0.175 sexgirls 0.168 My interpretations of the coefficients are as follows: "(Intercept)": mean of y for boys in mixed schools = -.189 "schgendboy-only": diff. bet. boys in boy-only vs. mixed schools = +.180 "schgendgirl-only": diff. bet. ???????????????????????????? = +.175 "sexgirls": diff. bet. girls vs. boys in mixed schools = +.168 If my interpretation logic for all other coefs is correct, then, this third coef. must mean: diff. bet. boys in girl-only vs. mixed schools = +.175! (which makes no sense!) ps. I know I will end-up interpreting +1.75 as: diff. bet. girls in girl-only vs. mixed schools BUT this doesn't follow the interpretation logic for other coefs PLUS there are no labels in the output to show what's what! Many thanks, Simon
_______________________________________________ R-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-sig-mixed-models
Dear Juho and other List Members, My problem is the logic of interpretation. Assuming no interaction, a categorical-predictors-only model, and aside from the intercept which captures the mean for reference categories (in this case, boys in the mixed schools), I have learned to interpret any main effect coef for a categorical predictor by thinking of that coef. as something that can differ from its reference category to affect "y" ***holding any other categorical predictor in the model at its reference category***. By this logic, "schgendboy-only" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. boys (held constant at the reference category) in boy-only vs. mixed schools (which shows "schgendboy-only" can differ from its reference category i.e, mixed schools). By this logic, "sexgirls" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. girls vs. boys (which shows "sexgirls" can differ from its reference category i.e, boys) in mixed schools (held constant at the reference category). Therefore, by this logic, "schgendgirl-only" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. boys (held constant at the reference category) in girl-only vs. mixed schools (which shows "schgendgirl-only" can differ from its reference category i.e, mixed schools). My question is that is my logic of interpretation incorrect? Or are there exceptions to my logic of interpretation of which interpreting "schgendgirl-only" coef is one? Thank you very much, Simon On Sun, Sep 26, 2021 at 12:00 AM Juho Kristian Ruohonen
<juho.kristian.ruohonen at gmail.com> wrote:
Fellow student commenting here... As you suggest, schgendgirl-only can only ever apply to female students. Strictly speaking, it's the estimated mean difference between a student of any sex in a girls-only school and a similar student in a mixed school. But since such comparisons are only observed between girls, the estimate is necessarily informed by girl data only. So your intended interpretation of the coefficient is correct. su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 0.27 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com) kirjoitti:
Dear Colleagues, Apologies for crossposting (https://stats.stackexchange.com/q/545975/284623). I've two categorical moderators i.e., students' ***sex*** (`boys`, `girls`) and the ***school-gender system*** (`boy-only`, `girl-only`, `mixed`) in a model like: `y ~ sex + schoolgend`. My coefs are below. I can interpret three of the coefs but wonder how to interpret the third one from the top (.175)? Assume "intrcpt" represents the boys' mean in mixed schools. Estimate (Intercept) -0.189 schgendboy-only 0.180 schgendgirl-only 0.175 sexgirls 0.168 My interpretations of the coefficients are as follows: "(Intercept)": mean of y for boys in mixed schools = -.189 "schgendboy-only": diff. bet. boys in boy-only vs. mixed schools = +.180 "schgendgirl-only": diff. bet. ???????????????????????????? = +.175 "sexgirls": diff. bet. girls vs. boys in mixed schools = +.168 If my interpretation logic for all other coefs is correct, then, this third coef. must mean: diff. bet. boys in girl-only vs. mixed schools = +.175! (which makes no sense!) ps. I know I will end-up interpreting +1.75 as: diff. bet. girls in girl-only vs. mixed schools BUT this doesn't follow the interpretation logic for other coefs PLUS there are no labels in the output to show what's what! Many thanks, Simon
_______________________________________________ R-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-sig-mixed-models
In my view, your logic is slightly oversimplified (i.e. incorrect). Regression models do not estimate coefficients by holding predictors constant exclusively at the reference category. They do something more general, namely estimate coefficients by holding predictors constant at any value at which variation is observed in the values of the other predictors. su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 9.03 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com) kirjoitti:
Dear Juho and other List Members, My problem is the logic of interpretation. Assuming no interaction, a categorical-predictors-only model, and aside from the intercept which captures the mean for reference categories (in this case, boys in the mixed schools), I have learned to interpret any main effect coef for a categorical predictor by thinking of that coef. as something that can differ from its reference category to affect "y" ***holding any other categorical predictor in the model at its reference category***. By this logic, "schgendboy-only" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. boys (held constant at the reference category) in boy-only vs. mixed schools (which shows "schgendboy-only" can differ from its reference category i.e, mixed schools). By this logic, "sexgirls" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. girls vs. boys (which shows "sexgirls" can differ from its reference category i.e, boys) in mixed schools (held constant at the reference category). Therefore, by this logic, "schgendgirl-only" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. boys (held constant at the reference category) in girl-only vs. mixed schools (which shows "schgendgirl-only" can differ from its reference category i.e, mixed schools). My question is that is my logic of interpretation incorrect? Or are there exceptions to my logic of interpretation of which interpreting "schgendgirl-only" coef is one? Thank you very much, Simon On Sun, Sep 26, 2021 at 12:00 AM Juho Kristian Ruohonen <juho.kristian.ruohonen at gmail.com> wrote:
Fellow student commenting here... As you suggest, schgendgirl-only can only ever apply to female students.
Strictly speaking, it's the estimated mean difference between a student of any sex in a girls-only school and a similar student in a mixed school. But since such comparisons are only observed between girls, the estimate is necessarily informed by girl data only. So your intended interpretation of the coefficient is correct.
su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 0.27 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com)
kirjoitti:
Dear Colleagues, Apologies for crossposting (
I've two categorical moderators i.e., students' ***sex*** (`boys`,
`girls`) and the ***school-gender system*** (`boy-only`, `girl-only`,
`mixed`) in a model like: `y ~ sex + schoolgend`.
My coefs are below. I can interpret three of the coefs but wonder how
to interpret the third one from the top (.175)?
Assume "intrcpt" represents the boys' mean in mixed schools.
Estimate
(Intercept) -0.189
schgendboy-only 0.180
schgendgirl-only 0.175
sexgirls 0.168
My interpretations of the coefficients are as follows:
"(Intercept)": mean of y for boys in mixed schools = -.189
"schgendboy-only": diff. bet. boys in boy-only vs. mixed schools =
+.180
"schgendgirl-only": diff. bet. ???????????????????????????? = +.175
"sexgirls": diff. bet. girls vs. boys in mixed schools
= +.168
If my interpretation logic for all other coefs is correct, then, this third coef. must mean: diff. bet. boys in girl-only vs. mixed schools = +.175! (which makes no
sense!)
ps. I know I will end-up interpreting +1.75 as: diff. bet. girls in girl-only vs. mixed schools BUT this doesn't follow the interpretation logic for other coefs PLUS there are no labels in the output to show what's what! Many thanks, Simon
_______________________________________________ R-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-sig-mixed-models
Could you please apply your logic step by step to the three coefficients? On Sun, Sep 26, 2021 at 1:39 AM Juho Kristian Ruohonen
<juho.kristian.ruohonen at gmail.com> wrote:
In my view, your logic is slightly oversimplified (i.e. incorrect). Regression models do not estimate coefficients by holding predictors constant exclusively at the reference category. They do something more general, namely estimate coefficients by holding predictors constant at any value at which variation is observed in the values of the other predictors. su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 9.03 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com) kirjoitti:
Dear Juho and other List Members, My problem is the logic of interpretation. Assuming no interaction, a categorical-predictors-only model, and aside from the intercept which captures the mean for reference categories (in this case, boys in the mixed schools), I have learned to interpret any main effect coef for a categorical predictor by thinking of that coef. as something that can differ from its reference category to affect "y" ***holding any other categorical predictor in the model at its reference category***. By this logic, "schgendboy-only" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. boys (held constant at the reference category) in boy-only vs. mixed schools (which shows "schgendboy-only" can differ from its reference category i.e, mixed schools). By this logic, "sexgirls" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. girls vs. boys (which shows "sexgirls" can differ from its reference category i.e, boys) in mixed schools (held constant at the reference category). Therefore, by this logic, "schgendgirl-only" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. boys (held constant at the reference category) in girl-only vs. mixed schools (which shows "schgendgirl-only" can differ from its reference category i.e, mixed schools). My question is that is my logic of interpretation incorrect? Or are there exceptions to my logic of interpretation of which interpreting "schgendgirl-only" coef is one? Thank you very much, Simon On Sun, Sep 26, 2021 at 12:00 AM Juho Kristian Ruohonen <juho.kristian.ruohonen at gmail.com> wrote:
Fellow student commenting here... As you suggest, schgendgirl-only can only ever apply to female students. Strictly speaking, it's the estimated mean difference between a student of any sex in a girls-only school and a similar student in a mixed school. But since such comparisons are only observed between girls, the estimate is necessarily informed by girl data only. So your intended interpretation of the coefficient is correct. su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 0.27 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com) kirjoitti:
Dear Colleagues, Apologies for crossposting (https://stats.stackexchange.com/q/545975/284623). I've two categorical moderators i.e., students' ***sex*** (`boys`, `girls`) and the ***school-gender system*** (`boy-only`, `girl-only`, `mixed`) in a model like: `y ~ sex + schoolgend`. My coefs are below. I can interpret three of the coefs but wonder how to interpret the third one from the top (.175)? Assume "intrcpt" represents the boys' mean in mixed schools. Estimate (Intercept) -0.189 schgendboy-only 0.180 schgendgirl-only 0.175 sexgirls 0.168 My interpretations of the coefficients are as follows: "(Intercept)": mean of y for boys in mixed schools = -.189 "schgendboy-only": diff. bet. boys in boy-only vs. mixed schools = +.180 "schgendgirl-only": diff. bet. ???????????????????????????? = +.175 "sexgirls": diff. bet. girls vs. boys in mixed schools = +.168 If my interpretation logic for all other coefs is correct, then, this third coef. must mean: diff. bet. boys in girl-only vs. mixed schools = +.175! (which makes no sense!) ps. I know I will end-up interpreting +1.75 as: diff. bet. girls in girl-only vs. mixed schools BUT this doesn't follow the interpretation logic for other coefs PLUS there are no labels in the output to show what's what! Many thanks, Simon
_______________________________________________ R-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-sig-mixed-models
(Intercept): with all predictors at zero, an average student is estimated to have a response value of -0.18. schgendboy-only: on average, students in boys-only schools are estimated to have response values 0.180 units higher than otherwise comparable students in a mixed-sex schools. schgendgirl-only: on average, students in girls-only schools are estimated to have response values 0.175 units higher than otherwise comparable students in a mixed-sex schools. sexgirl: on average, female students are estimated to have response values 0.168 units higher than otherwise comparable male students. su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 9.57 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com) kirjoitti:
Could you please apply your logic step by step to the three coefficients? On Sun, Sep 26, 2021 at 1:39 AM Juho Kristian Ruohonen <juho.kristian.ruohonen at gmail.com> wrote:
In my view, your logic is slightly oversimplified (i.e. incorrect).
Regression models do not estimate coefficients by holding predictors constant exclusively at the reference category. They do something more general, namely estimate coefficients by holding predictors constant at any value at which variation is observed in the values of the other predictors.
su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 9.03 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com)
kirjoitti:
Dear Juho and other List Members, My problem is the logic of interpretation. Assuming no interaction, a categorical-predictors-only model, and aside from the intercept which captures the mean for reference categories (in this case, boys in the mixed schools), I have learned to interpret any main effect coef for a categorical predictor by thinking of that coef. as something that can differ from its reference category to affect "y" ***holding any other categorical predictor in the model at its reference category***. By this logic, "schgendboy-only" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. boys (held constant at the reference category) in boy-only vs. mixed schools (which shows "schgendboy-only" can differ from its reference category i.e, mixed schools). By this logic, "sexgirls" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. girls vs. boys (which shows "sexgirls" can differ from its reference category i.e, boys) in mixed schools (held constant at the reference category). Therefore, by this logic, "schgendgirl-only" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. boys (held constant at the reference category) in girl-only vs. mixed schools (which shows "schgendgirl-only" can differ from its reference category i.e, mixed schools). My question is that is my logic of interpretation incorrect? Or are there exceptions to my logic of interpretation of which interpreting "schgendgirl-only" coef is one? Thank you very much, Simon On Sun, Sep 26, 2021 at 12:00 AM Juho Kristian Ruohonen <juho.kristian.ruohonen at gmail.com> wrote:
Fellow student commenting here... As you suggest, schgendgirl-only can only ever apply to female
students. Strictly speaking, it's the estimated mean difference between a student of any sex in a girls-only school and a similar student in a mixed school. But since such comparisons are only observed between girls, the estimate is necessarily informed by girl data only. So your intended interpretation of the coefficient is correct.
su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 0.27 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com)
kirjoitti:
Dear Colleagues, Apologies for crossposting (
I've two categorical moderators i.e., students' ***sex*** (`boys`,
`girls`) and the ***school-gender system*** (`boy-only`, `girl-only`,
`mixed`) in a model like: `y ~ sex + schoolgend`.
My coefs are below. I can interpret three of the coefs but wonder how
to interpret the third one from the top (.175)?
Assume "intrcpt" represents the boys' mean in mixed schools.
Estimate
(Intercept) -0.189
schgendboy-only 0.180
schgendgirl-only 0.175
sexgirls 0.168
My interpretations of the coefficients are as follows:
"(Intercept)": mean of y for boys in mixed schools =
-.189
"schgendboy-only": diff. bet. boys in boy-only vs. mixed schools =
+.180
"schgendgirl-only": diff. bet. ???????????????????????????? = +.175
"sexgirls": diff. bet. girls vs. boys in mixed
schools = +.168
If my interpretation logic for all other coefs is correct, then, this third coef. must mean: diff. bet. boys in girl-only vs. mixed schools = +.175! (which makes
no sense!)
ps. I know I will end-up interpreting +1.75 as: diff. bet. girls in girl-only vs. mixed schools BUT this doesn't follow the
interpretation
logic for other coefs PLUS there are no labels in the output to show what's what! Many thanks, Simon
_______________________________________________ R-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-sig-mixed-models
On 9/26/21 06:26, Simon Harmel wrote:
I've two categorical moderators i.e., students' ***sex*** (`boys`, `girls`) and the ***school-gender system*** (`boy-only`, `girl-only`, `mixed`) in a model like: `y ~ sex + schoolgend`.
I don't get this. Why is this posted to a mixed-effects model list when there is no random effect? That said, this really is a hierarchical model, since the sex predictor is an individual-level predictor, and school-gender-system is a school-level predictor. In a case like this, you're getting messed up trying to conceptualize the cross-level interaction. My head is all messed up just trying to figure it out.
Stuart Luppescu Chief Psychometrician (ret.) UChicago Consortium on School Research
It is a good question for a list on mixed models, though the interpretation would be common to traditional linear models. There is no mess in the questions. There are not interactions. The question is about the interpretation of the parameters in the following equation: Yij = Cij + B1 x Xij + B2 x Zj The special characteristics of the question is about the gender composition of the variables Xij and Zj. Best, Fernando
De: R-sig-mixed-models <r-sig-mixed-models-bounces at r-project.org> en nombre de Stuart Luppescu <lupp at uchicago.edu>
Enviado: domingo, 26 de septiembre de 2021 15:28 Para: r-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org <r-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org> Asunto: Re: [R-sig-ME] Help with interpreting one fixed-effect coefficient On 9/26/21 06:26, Simon Harmel wrote: > I've two categorical moderators i.e., students' ***sex*** (`boys`, > `girls`) and the ***school-gender system*** (`boy-only`, `girl-only`, > `mixed`) in a model like: `y ~ sex + schoolgend`. I don't get this. Why is this posted to a mixed-effects model list when there is no random effect? That said, this really is a hierarchical model, since the sex predictor is an individual-level predictor, and school-gender-system is a school-level predictor. In a case like this, you're getting messed up trying to conceptualize the cross-level interaction. My head is all messed up just trying to figure it out. -- Stuart Luppescu Chief Psychometrician (ret.) UChicago Consortium on School Research _______________________________________________ R-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-sig-mixed-models
Dear Juho, Sure. However, all major resources disagree with your interpretation (e.g., https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/book/10.1002/9781118625590). This is because the goal of fixed-effect coefs is to predict/estimate the mean of "y"'s population distribution conditional on specific values/levels of a combination of predictors in the model. This means that the coefs. themselves must represent specific values/levels of a combination of predictors in the model to make such conditional predictions possible. Applying this logic to your interpretations, your interpretations simply ignore specifying which specific values/levels of a combination of predictors in the model each coef. represents. Therefore, it logically doesn't agree with the goal of fixed-effects coefficients. Thanks, Simon On Sun, Sep 26, 2021 at 2:43 AM Juho Kristian Ruohonen
<juho.kristian.ruohonen at gmail.com> wrote:
(Intercept): with all predictors at zero, an average student is estimated to have a response value of -0.18. schgendboy-only: on average, students in boys-only schools are estimated to have response values 0.180 units higher than otherwise comparable students in a mixed-sex schools. schgendgirl-only: on average, students in girls-only schools are estimated to have response values 0.175 units higher than otherwise comparable students in a mixed-sex schools. sexgirl: on average, female students are estimated to have response values 0.168 units higher than otherwise comparable male students. su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 9.57 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com) kirjoitti:
Could you please apply your logic step by step to the three coefficients? On Sun, Sep 26, 2021 at 1:39 AM Juho Kristian Ruohonen <juho.kristian.ruohonen at gmail.com> wrote:
In my view, your logic is slightly oversimplified (i.e. incorrect). Regression models do not estimate coefficients by holding predictors constant exclusively at the reference category. They do something more general, namely estimate coefficients by holding predictors constant at any value at which variation is observed in the values of the other predictors. su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 9.03 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com) kirjoitti:
Dear Juho and other List Members, My problem is the logic of interpretation. Assuming no interaction, a categorical-predictors-only model, and aside from the intercept which captures the mean for reference categories (in this case, boys in the mixed schools), I have learned to interpret any main effect coef for a categorical predictor by thinking of that coef. as something that can differ from its reference category to affect "y" ***holding any other categorical predictor in the model at its reference category***. By this logic, "schgendboy-only" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. boys (held constant at the reference category) in boy-only vs. mixed schools (which shows "schgendboy-only" can differ from its reference category i.e, mixed schools). By this logic, "sexgirls" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. girls vs. boys (which shows "sexgirls" can differ from its reference category i.e, boys) in mixed schools (held constant at the reference category). Therefore, by this logic, "schgendgirl-only" main effect coef should mean diff. bet. boys (held constant at the reference category) in girl-only vs. mixed schools (which shows "schgendgirl-only" can differ from its reference category i.e, mixed schools). My question is that is my logic of interpretation incorrect? Or are there exceptions to my logic of interpretation of which interpreting "schgendgirl-only" coef is one? Thank you very much, Simon On Sun, Sep 26, 2021 at 12:00 AM Juho Kristian Ruohonen <juho.kristian.ruohonen at gmail.com> wrote:
Fellow student commenting here... As you suggest, schgendgirl-only can only ever apply to female students. Strictly speaking, it's the estimated mean difference between a student of any sex in a girls-only school and a similar student in a mixed school. But since such comparisons are only observed between girls, the estimate is necessarily informed by girl data only. So your intended interpretation of the coefficient is correct. su 26. syysk. 2021 klo 0.27 Simon Harmel (sim.harmel at gmail.com) kirjoitti:
Dear Colleagues, Apologies for crossposting (https://stats.stackexchange.com/q/545975/284623). I've two categorical moderators i.e., students' ***sex*** (`boys`, `girls`) and the ***school-gender system*** (`boy-only`, `girl-only`, `mixed`) in a model like: `y ~ sex + schoolgend`. My coefs are below. I can interpret three of the coefs but wonder how to interpret the third one from the top (.175)? Assume "intrcpt" represents the boys' mean in mixed schools. Estimate (Intercept) -0.189 schgendboy-only 0.180 schgendgirl-only 0.175 sexgirls 0.168 My interpretations of the coefficients are as follows: "(Intercept)": mean of y for boys in mixed schools = -.189 "schgendboy-only": diff. bet. boys in boy-only vs. mixed schools = +.180 "schgendgirl-only": diff. bet. ???????????????????????????? = +.175 "sexgirls": diff. bet. girls vs. boys in mixed schools = +.168 If my interpretation logic for all other coefs is correct, then, this third coef. must mean: diff. bet. boys in girl-only vs. mixed schools = +.175! (which makes no sense!) ps. I know I will end-up interpreting +1.75 as: diff. bet. girls in girl-only vs. mixed schools BUT this doesn't follow the interpretation logic for other coefs PLUS there are no labels in the output to show what's what! Many thanks, Simon
_______________________________________________ R-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-sig-mixed-models