confidence in the inferences. Unfortunately such comparisons aren't as
feasible (for me) with multi-response models.
Ned
--
Ned Dochtermann
Department of Biology
University of Nevada, Reno
ned.dochtermann at gmail.com
http://wolfweb.unr.edu/homepage/mpeacock/Ned.Dochtermann/
http://www.researcherid.com/rid/A-7146-2010
--
Message: 5
Date: Tue, 26 Apr 2011 09:41:58 +0200
From: "Pierre B. de Villemereuil" <bonamy at horus.ens.fr>
To: Celine Teplitsky <teplitsky at mnhn.fr>
Cc: r-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org
Subject: Re: [R-sig-ME] prior specification in MCMCglmm
Message-ID: <4DB67746.4000607 at horus.ens.fr>
Content-Type: text/plain
Dear Ciline,
I'm not very comfortable with covariance priors, but my guess is that,
is this case, you've got to really specify a inverse-Wishart as a prior.
You should check into Hadfield's article introducing MCMCglmm, they use
something like V=diag(dimV)/4 and n=dimV. Why ? I have no idea. If your
data are not standardized, I don't think you should divide by 4 (but
then, you specify your prior as if your guess for variance components is
that they all equal 1), but for the rest...
Sorry I can not help further. Maybe somebody else would be able to help
on this subject ?
Pierre.
Le 26/04/2011 09:17, Celine Teplitsky a icrit :
Dear Pierre,
thanks a lot! It does help, but I will need time to fully understand
the paper.
Just one further question if I may, what prior would you use for a
covariance then?
Many thanks again,
All the best
Celine
Dear Ciline !
One usual "non informative" prior on variance component is V=1, and
nu=0.002, which correspond to a inverse-Gamma(0.001,0.001). This is
usual, but that is not to say that it is really non informative.
Indeed, inverse-Gamma(e,e) is weakly informative, since the posterior
can depend on the choice of e.
Concerning the WAMwiki suggestion to use the phenotypic variance to
set the prior, this quite not orthodox since no information coming
from your current dataset should be used to define the prior (but you
could use previous data to parametrize your prior).
I would suggest you to refit your model considering V=1 and nu=0.002
as a (so-called) non informative prior. Other solutions exist like
using the parameter expansion and a chi2 distribution by setting
V=1,nu=1000,alpha.mu=0 and alpha.V=1, which is also weakly
informative (it has more weight in variance values less than 10).
For more information about priors on variance component, and
parameter expansion, it would suggest you to read :
1. A. Gelman, + Prior distributions for variance parameters in
hierarchical models ;, /Bayesian analysis/ 1, n^o . 3 (2006):
515--533.
In the hope I'm helping.
Pierre de Villemereuil.
Le 25/04/2011 13:26, Celine Teplitsky a icrit :
Dear all,
I realise that Jarrod is doing field work, but I'm really hoping
someone can answer my question while he's not around.
I am running animal models estimating covariances between life
history traits, and I'm having trouble knowing which prior to use.
Thing is, if I use a prior as described on the Wam wiki site with
V=PhenotypicVar/4 (as I have 3 random effects + residual), I have
very nice results, with some significant genetic correlations
between some life history traits.
However, one reviewer asked about prior sensitivity because CI were
pretty large, so I went back to MCMCglmm course notes and saw that
non informative prior were supposed to be V=diag(nbDimV)*0 and
n=nbDimV-3. This led to an error message about G being ill
conditioned, so I tried with diag(nbDimV)*0.001 and
diag(nbDimV)*0.01 instead of diag(nbDimV)*0, and diag(nbDimV)*0.01
worked... But then I have the posterior of additive genetic variance
collapsing on 0 for some trait. So my guess would be that I should
use those latest priors, and believe my nice results did not exist.
But as Hadfield et al paper and the Wam wiki website do not
recommend those priors, I am a bit confused. Could someone help me
figure out what would be the right thing to do?
All my apologies if this is a silly question, but I'm feeling a bit
lost here
Thanks a lot in advance
Celine
--
Celine Teplitsky
Dipartement Ecologie et Gestion de la Biodiversiti UMR 7204
Uniti Conservation des Esphces, Restauration et Suivi des Populations
Case Postale 51
55 rue Buffon 75005 Paris
Webpage :http://www2.mnhn.fr/cersp/spip.php?rubrique96
Fax : (33-1)-4079-3835
Phone: (33-1)-4079-3443
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Message: 6
Date: Tue, 26 Apr 2011 11:53:02 +0200
From: peter dalgaard <PDalgd at gmail.com>
To: Junqian Gordon Xu <xjqian at gmail.com>
Cc: r-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org
Subject: Re: [R-sig-ME] interaction term in null hypothesis
Message-ID: <E1153437-757B-42E9-9A72-89EF9A368101 at gmail.com>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="us-ascii"
On Apr 26, 2011, at 00:05 , Junqian Gordon Xu wrote:
I have a quick question for a simple model as below:
Fix + (1 | Rand) + (1 | Rand : Fix)
Which one is the null hypothesis:
1 + (1 | Rand) + (1 | Rand : Fix)
To me the interaction term (1 | Rand : Fix) does not make much sense if
no fixed effect term is present in the model, but I'm not sure.
It does make sense, at least sometimes. For one thing, such interactions